That requires a rather narrow definition of "major cities".
The rest of Europe isn't that much different. WW2 caused a major shift of population to major cities while in the US it didn't while the US population is still very urban they size of cities/towns is smaller in general.
Also i really hate when people compare the US to a specific EU country the US is bigger than Europe go out of major cities in Europe and you'll have shitty internet, there are towns and cities in Germany where the best you can get is a 10mbit DSL and it's not a unique case in Europe.
(Edit: fixed 25 for 19, accidentally added a city twice)
[0] https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_English_districts_by... [1] https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_United_States_cities...
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_United_States_cities_b...
This one is more sensitive to noise, but still pretty different than what you quote: The top 5 metro areas have 56.9 M
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_North_American_metropo...
This is a nonsensical statistic to use, irrespective of whether the numbers of right or wrong. Imagine taking the UK and copy-pasting it 10 times. Make the new deca-UK a single country, let's call it 10UK.
Obviously, 10UK has exactly the same proportion of people living in "major cities" as the original UK. Obviously, the infrastructure serving the 10 copies of each major city is equally affordable for a country with 10x of everything (or even more affordable, due to more economies of scale).
But the 10 largest cities of 10UK are the 10 copies of London, and thus the proportion of people living in the 10 largest cities of 10UK is equal to the proportion of people living in the single largest city in the UK. Clearly, this is the wrong number to use to estimate anything related to the problem at hand.
This is one of those rare situations where avoiding the wrong conclusion requires zero knowledge of the world; cognitive ability on its own is sufficient. In other words, you are demonstrably stupid.