The USA has always been partly hispanic, from before there was a USA. That might have something to do with their presence in the country today.
Similarly, I don't think the African-American presence in the USA can be put down to a pro-diversity immigration system, unless we're really twisting those words meanings. Indeed America has a long history of having openly and literally racist immigration laws.
Either way, we seem to be retreating from "this can't happen in the USA because it's diverse" to "there's poor people in America", which seems like a different argument entirely.
The US was 3% hispanic in 1960 and 84% white. Your premise is wrong. In 57 years, the US hispanic population has skyrocketed from around 6.x million, to ten times that today. The reason for that, is immigration policies that allowed for vast immigration from Latin America. For reference, from 1980 to 2000, the US absorbed about 8% of Mexico's entire population; that's just immigration from one country.
I never said the presence of black people in the US was due to pro-diversity reasons. You're inventing that. I specifically said the lack of black people in Canada is due to anti-diversity immigration policies. That the US is ~13.4% black, does in fact make it more diverse than it would be if the US were 2% black as with Canada.
You're going to need a good reference for that one, just because categories have changed, plenty of hispanics have identified as white when they thought it would help and when they could pass, and because plenty of non-citizens don't respond to these types of surveys unless specifically targeted, although I'm sure that there would be methodologies that could attempt to account for them if the investigator intended to.
tl;dr methodology is important when trying to estimate the population of hispanics in the US, especially in 1960. Specific references would be helpful.
"Since 1960, the nation’s Latino population has increased nearly ninefold, from 6.3 million" (the US population was 180 million in 1960, that's 3.5%)
"The foreign-born Latino population has increased to nearly 20 times its size over the past half century, from less than 1 million in 1960 to 19.4 million in 2015"
http://www.pewhispanic.org/2017/09/18/facts-on-u-s-latinos/
Here's information showing the US was only about 4% hispanic in 1965 (11% black, 84% white).
http://www.pewhispanic.org/2015/09/28/modern-immigration-wav...
All the reference points line up to my information being approximately correct. For example, there were 2.1 million Mexican immigrants in the US as recently as 1980. By 2006, that was 11.5 million.
https://www.migrationpolicy.org/article/mexican-immigrants-u...
Maybe the hispanic people were younger, and had more children (I believe the facts back me up here)? Maybe their religion encouraged this? Maybe hispanic immigrants wanted to go to a nation that already had 3% hispanic population and that was geographically closer to their home nation? Maybe they could trace their family roots over the border?
You appeared to making a relative claim about US and Canadian immigration policy? I thought you were implying that if Canada had an immigration policy like the USA then it would also have 12% black population and that because it doesn't then it's somehow bad and/or cheating?
You'd have to estimate what percentage of African immigrants would have made it into the USA (in the years it wasn't illegal of course) and then substract some kind of modifier similar to the Hispanic immigration, where African immigrants may wish to move somewhere where there already were people who looked like them. And then compare those numbers to see whether Canada was really being exclusionary towards Africans relative to the USA.
I was implying Canada would have far more black people today than a mere 2.x% of its population, if its immigration policy wasn't extremely exclusionary. There is a six fold gap in that percentage with the US. There is a ~15 fold gap in the hispanic percentage.
I would like to see you explain how the Americas can be ~72% hispanic, while Canada is 1.x% hispanic, while the US has allowed in vast Latin American immigration over the last 60 years, if it's not due to Canada being anti-diversity. The touted diversity premise doesn't make any sense given the demographic facts of Canada and the facts about its immigration policies.
If Canada is pro-diversity, why aren't the hispanic numbers dramatically higher given the context in the rest of the Americas? Why doesn't Canada abandon its regressive skill & education based immigration system and allow in millions of Latin American immigrants?
how much of that was legal?
