I've never heard of this. Source?
Edit: As a counter-point, at least in Poland, while obtaining stolen goods is an offense ("paserstwo"[3]), the buyer of any good or service that has a "legal defect" - including having been stolen, IIRC - has a valid legal case to demand recourse from the seller. The goods are nonetheless subject to forfeiture.
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Possession_of_stolen_goods
"A person can be found guilty of that offense only if all of the following facts are proven: The person received or concealed or stored or disposed of items of stolen property. The items were moving as, or constituted a part of, interstate commerce. The items had a value in excess of $5,000. The person acted knowingly and willfully."
So that doesn't really answer the question asked, because it's only a federal crime if the goods are known to be stolen and a part of "interstate commerce."
Now, at the state level, this may differ. But neither of us has that information.
>All US states also have laws regarding receipt of stolen property; however, there usually is no minimum dollar amount in many jurisdictions, and, of course, the requirement in Federal law regarding interstate commerce does not apply.
i.e., USA-wide
>Also, in many states (Ohio, for example), the burden to prove criminal intent is not as stringent or is nonexistent.
i hereby rest my case.
It's a risk when you buy anything from eBay or the like, but the overall risk is small enough that the savings are justified usually.
