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0 pointsmikelevins4y ago0 comments

While we're picking nits, whether a pair of words used as a single lexeme should be hyphenated depends on context and style standards. For example, Apple's style standards for technical publications in the 1980s and 1990s dictated that two words treated together as a modifier (an adjective or adverb) of some other lexeme should be hyphenated. That's how "de facto" is used in the OP's text.

"De facto" is Latin for "in fact", or "as a matter of fact", and it retains that meaning as an English phrase. That works perfectly well modifying "emperor of tech". Of course you might not agree that Apple is the de-facto (or "de facto") emperor of tech, but that's a separate question from whether the usage is allowable.

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Bud4y ago

I didn't say "allowable". I said "correctly"; it doesn't mean what GP appears to think it means.

As for whether de facto specifically is hyphenated, go look it up yourself. Latin phrases are not hyphenated; that's generally agreed. This is because they are easily seen to hang together as a single unit without the added help of a hyphen, so the hyphen is redundant in this case. But yes, I am aware that most pairs of words used as a modifier, as in this case, would be hyphenated. I own about eight style guides, so I wasn't just going off randomly about that.

mikelevinsOP4y ago

I looked it up for myself and found that different editors take different positions. To quote from one:

"In some scholarly articles, you’ll find hyphenated Latin expressions (such as ex-post-facto research design or status-quo bias). Does that mean those journals’ editors or proofreaders did slapdash work? No. It’s not incorrect to hyphenate Latin phrases, but it’s unnecessary. However, some style guides may recommend hyphenating all Latin phrases used as adjectives (I’m yet to find a major one that does, though)."

You've made it clear what the standard is when you're the editor, which is fine with me.

Bud4y ago

Even that editor admits that no real style guide takes that position. And of course not, because it would make no sense. The hyphen accomplishes nothing in such a case. However, although you didn't cite your source, let's call it a tie. :)

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Bud4y ago

I didn't say "allowable". I said "correctly"; it doesn't mean what GP appears to think it means.

mikelevinsOP4y ago

I looked it up for myself and found that different editors take different positions. To quote from one:

You've made it clear what the standard is when you're the editor, which is fine with me.

Bud4y ago

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