Banks create money on demand by discounting collateral. Government creates money on demand by discounting the power to tax.
Fiat money disappears by the drain to taxation, to repaying loans and to 'rainy day funds'.
Fractional reserve banking absolutely exists.
QE is so thinly related I can hardly imagine how you could contort it to have "disproved" something which is codified in law and taught in basic finance and economics courses.
The reserve ratio in the UK and Canada is zero. Which means we should have infinite money in the banking system according to your beliefs.
Yet demonstrably we do not.
You have the line of causality backward, as the Bank of England helpfully explains in detail here: https://www.bankofengland.co.uk/-/media/boe/files/quarterly-...
2) "infinite money" without a legal limit to reserve ratios would only occur if every single bank actually had exactly 0% reserves, and it would take infinite time and infinite transactions for that to occur.
FYI using the observed absence of 'infinity' as a proof is generally poor logic as there is lots of mechanisms blocking infinity from occurring in reality.
That money will eventually be used again but it's worse than paying someone to dig and fill a hole.
Q: How much money flows into "X" market? A: None, money flows THROUGH markets.
If the market valuation goes up to Y+Z, you could say money has "entered" the stock market, pushing its share of value to (Y+Z)/(X+Y+Z) even though the money in circulation, X, could be unchanged.
Yes, when you buy newly issued shares from Apple (rare), cash flows through the stock market into Apple's accounts, but again, no money went 'into' the stock market.
If you're talking about Apple selling devices, then it's another concept entirely.
Yes, when an item goes through something, it is briefly inside of that thing. I agree.
