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0 pointsamarshall3y ago0 comments

If one believes and proclaims that they have controlled for variable X, but they haven’t actually done so, then their results and analysis may well be invalid or misleading because of that. Whether they actually should have controlled for X or not is orthogonal.

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codefreeordie3y ago

Oh, yes, sorry. If by the correlation being possibly-undesirable you meant that it was possibly-spurious due to incompletely controlling for some bias in the source data, then yes, conclusions based on a model which found such a spurious correlation caused by incomplete input control might be undesirably biased in a not-accurate fashion.

This study appears to have done a good job controlling for known biases that could have been proxies for race, but it is presumably possible that they missed something and tainted the data

amarshallOP3y ago

Right, and that’s pretty much the conclusion: our explicit goal was to control for race, and yet, we appear to have failed and don’t know why (so don’t know how to adjust the control yet). So likely others using similar-enough methodologies and techniques are unknowingly failing to control.

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0 pointsamarshall3y ago0 comments

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codefreeordie3y ago

This study appears to have done a good job controlling for known biases that could have been proxies for race, but it is presumably possible that they missed something and tainted the data

amarshallOP3y ago

j / k navigate · click thread line to collapse