I'm sorry but your long-winded explanation (as this topic always produces for reasons I never understand) just isn't something I can make sense of. You're pointing out loops in the payment graph. Sure there are, nobody claimed the graph is loopless. But that obviously doesn't imply 100% of the flow is going through a closed loop. The more you increase the outward flow the more you need to increase the inward flow, and the extent to which you can do the latter is not limitless. This seems too obvious to me to convince myself it can be just hand-waved away with a complicated explanation.
> There is no need for government to pay interest at all. It's entirely a policy choice.
I don't know why you purchase (say) bonds, but most people I know purchase them for the interest, not out of some sense of patriotic goodwill. You'd think if the government could get the same loans with the same terms without paying interest, then they would avoid paying interest...
Nobody's explanation of this ever makes sense to me, like you can see above. Half of it always seems overcomplicated (missing half the issue) and the other half just seems outright wrong. (This is precisely why I said someone needs to write a convincing & comprehensible blog post on this.)