I wonder if this could be fought in court as it would make "no taxation without representation." Difficult to address.
If a person living in Ohio, gets taxed in NewYork state, can they vote in NewYork now? If not, then they've been taxed without representation. I would figure that would be against the law. It could be argued at least that they should have a partial vote :)
Taxed for 1/365th of the year, you get 1/365th of a vote.
