Using archaic latin terms doesn't really strengthen your argument for linguistic evolution.
However, for certain using plurals for individuals of unknown gender is hardly rare, there are hundreds of examples in literature a quick Google away.
It has become (somewhat) popular in the context particularly of discussions on trans rights and 'misgendering' to take the position that the singular they is somehow ungrammatical because people don't want to use it to refer to people whose gender they believe is not unknown.
But it seems to me as though that argument is actually not related to the current discussion.
Here we are simply discussing whether 'they' can be used to refer to a person whose gender is unknown to the speaker at the time, for which there is ample historical, literary evidence that this is commonplace in English, as well as the anecdotal evidence from sibling comments.