Caveat lector: You should significantly discount legal analysis from an author that confuses precedence and precedent.

To be honest I am even confused about what precedent you are referring to?

Justsignedup is saying that the state is trying to get defendant to plea to a no-punishment conviction, pressuring defendant to agree to their charges, so that he state can win future cases on this precedent.

Wouldn't it only create precedence if he sued and it was dismissed? I can't imagine precedence being created from the lack of a legal decision.