https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=1287594
https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=5585646
In particular, there's a link to "The Last Question"
http://www.multivax.com/last_question.html
That's been submitted before too:
https://hn.algolia.com/?q=the+last+question#!/story/sort_by_...
http://localroger.com/prime-intellect/mopiall.html
which was :woah:
For S={2,4,6,8...}
S/2={1,2,3,4,..}
I used to think the set of even integers is a subset of the natural numbers.Doesnt this suggest that the reverse (the set of natural numbers being a subset of even integers) is actually true?
The same is true of the rational numbers, by the way. There is a famous proof of the fact that there are infinite sets with larger cardinality that the naturals (the reals for example): http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor's_diagonal_argument
What you're seeing is a 1:1 correspondence between an infinite set (the natural numbers) and a proper subset of same (the even natural numbers).